2018 Chemistry paper 2

1. The diagram in figure I shows some natural and industrial processes. Study it and answer the questions that follows

(a) Identify the processes labelled: (2 marks)

A……………….

B……………….

C……………….

D……………….

(b) State the reagents and conditions required for processes B and D.

(i) Process B:

Reagent…………….(1 mark)

Conditions ………… (l mark )

(ii) Process D:

Reagent…………….(1 mark)

Conditions ………… (l mark )

(iii) Describe how process D is carried out.(2 marks)

(iv) State two additives used to improve the quality of soap.(1 marks)

(c) State the reagents required in steps F and G.(1 marks)

(iii) Draw the structure of terylene.(1 marks)

(d) (i) Name the polymer formed in step C.(1 marks)

(ii) State one disadvantage of the polymer formed in (d) (i).(1 marks)

2. Figure 2 is a section of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements

(a) (i) Select elements which belong to the same chemical family.(1 marks)

(ii) Write the formulae of ions for elements in the same period.(1 marks)

(b) The hrst ionisation energies of two elements K and M at random are 577 kJ/mol and 494 tel/mol .(1 marks)

(i) Write equations for the 1 ˢ ᵗ ionisation energies for elements K and M and indicate their energies.(1 marks)

(iii) Write the formula of the compound formed when L and I react.(1 marks)

(iv) Give one use of elemcnt V.(1 marks)

(c) (i) State anothcr group that G can be placcd in Figure 1. Explain. (2 marks)

(ii) How do the reactivity of elements J and K compare? Explain. (2 marks)

(d) (i) Elements L and M form chlorides. Complete the following table by writing the formulae of each chloride and state the nature of the solutions. (2 marks)

(ii) The chloride of element M vapourises easily while its oxide has a high melting point. Explain. (2 marks)

3. (a) Complete Table I by indicating the observations, type of permanent or temporary change and name of new compound formed.

(b) Use the set-up in Figure 3 to answer the questions that follow. The flask was covered with a cloth that had been soaked in ice-cold water.

(i) State the observation made on the coloured water. Explain.(2 marks)

(ii) Name the gas law illustrated in Figure 3.(1 marks)

(c) Use the standard electrode potentials in Table 2 to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Write the half-cell representation for the element whose electrode potential is for hydrogen. (1 mark)

(ii) Arrange the elements in order of reducing power, starting with the weakest reducing agent. (1 mark)

(iii) I Select two half cells which combine to give a cell with the least e.m.f. (1 mark)

II Calculate the e.m.f of the half cells identified in (iii) I. (1 mark)

4. An experiment was carried out to prepare crystals of magnesium sulphate.

Excess magnesi um powder was added to l00cm’of dilute sulphuric(VI) acid in a beaker and warmed until no further reaction took place.

The mixture was filtered and the filtrate evaporated to saturation, then lcft to cool for crystals to form.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction.(1 mark)

(ii) Explain why eKcess magnesium powder was used.(1 mark)

(iii) State how completion of the reaction was determined.(1 mark)

(iv) What is meant by a saturated solution?(1 mark)

(v) Explain why the filtrate was not evaporated to dryness.(2 mark)

(b) When bleaching powder, CaOC1„ is treated with dilute nitric(V) acid, chlorine gas is released.

This reaction can be used to determine the chlorine content of various samples of bleaching powders and liquids.

(i) Write an equation for the reaction of nitric(V) acid with bleaching powder.(1 mark)

(ii) Calculate the volume of chlorine produced when 10 g of CaOC1, is treated with excess nitric(V) acid. (Ca = 40.0; O = 16.0; Cl = 35.5; 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4dm³ at s.t.p) (3 marks)

(c) Apart from use of chlorine gas in bleaches and water treatment, state two other uses of chlorine gas. (1 mark)

5. (a) The diagram in Figure 4 was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas which was passed over heated iron powder.

(i) Give a pair of reagents that will produce hydrogen chloride gas in flask A. (2 marks)

(ii) Name the substance in flask B.(1 marks)

(iii) State the observation made in the combustion tube.(1 marks)

(iv) Write an equation for the reaction in the combustion tube.(1 marks)

(v) Describe a chemical test for hydrogen chloride gas.(1 marks)

(b) (i) Identify the gas that bums at the jet.(1 marks)

(ii) Explain why the gas in (b) (i) is burned.(1 marks)

(c) Give reasons why excess hydrogen chloride gas is dissolved using the funnel arrangement. (2 marks)

(d) State what will be observed when the reaction in the combustion tube is complete.(1 marks)

(e) Another experiment was carried out where hydrogen chloride gas was bubbled through methylbeiizene and water in separate beakers.

The resulting solutions were tested with blue litmus papers and marble chips.

(i) Write the observations made in the following table.

(ii) Explain the observations in (e) (i).(2 marks)

6. (a) In Kenya, sodium carbonate is extracted from trona at Lake Magadi. (i) Give the formula of trona.

(ii) Name the process of extracting sodium carbonate from trona.(2 marks)

(b) The flow chart in Figure 5 summarises the steps involved in the production of sodium carbonate. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name the process illustrated in Figure 5.(1 mark)

(ii) Identify the starting raw materials required in the production of sodium carbonate. (2 marks)

(iii) Write equations for the two reactions that occur in the carbonator. (2 marks)

(iv) Name two substances that are recycled. (v) Identify:

Solid X;…………….(l mark)

Process W……………(l mark)

(vi) Write an equation for the reaction that produces solution Z.(l mark)

(vii) Apart from softening hard water, state two other uses of sodium carbonate. (2 marks)

Questions and Answers

2018 Chemistry paper 2

1. The diagram in figure I shows some natural and industrial processes. Study it and answer the questions that follows

(a) Identify the processes labelled: (2 marks)

A — Fermentation

B — Dehydration

C — Addition polymerization / polymerization

D — Saponification

(b) State the reagents and conditions required for processes B and D.

(i) Process B:

Reagent – Concentrated sulphuric(VI) acids

Conditions – Temperature of 160°C – l80°C.

<(ii) Process D:

Reagent – hydroxide / Sodium hydroxide

Conditions – Boil / Boiling

(iii) Describe how process D is carried out.(2 marks)

The vegetable oil is mixed with sodium hydroxide and boiled

Solid sodium chloride is added to the resulting mixture, to precipitate out the soap from glycerol.

(iv) State two additives used to improve the quality of soap.(1 marks)

Perfumeand builders / tetraoxophosphates/dye

(c) State the reagents required in steps F and G.(1 marks)

Step F – acidified potassium manganate (VII)

(iii) Draw the structure of terylene.(1 marks)

(d) (i) Name the polymer formed in step C.(1 marks)

Polyethene / polythene

(ii) State one disadvantage of the polymer formed in (d) (i).(1 marks)

It is non-biodegradable hence pollutes the environment;

Produces poisonous gases when burnt.

2. Figure 2 is a section of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The letters do not represent the actual symbols of elements

(a) (i) Select elements which belong to the same chemical family.(1 marks)

K and J

(ii) Write the formulae of ions for elements in the same period.(1 marks)

K⁺ , L<sup+2< sup=””>, M³⁺</sup+2<>

(b) The first ionisation energies of two elements K and M at random are 577 kJ/mol and 494 tel/mol .(1 marks)

(i) Write equations for the 1ˢᵗ ionisation energies for elements K and M and indicate their energies.(1 marks)

K_(g) + k_(g)⁺+ e

AHA — 494kJ/mol

M_(g) + M_(g)⁺+ e

AHA — 577kJ/mol

(iii) Write the formula of the compound formed when L and I react.(1 marks)

Across the period, size of atoms decreases therefore more energy required to remove electrons from an atom i

n its gaseous state hence, 1ˢᵗ ionization energy for M will be greater than that of K.

K has lower nuclear charge / attraction than M / K has less protons than M.

(iv) Give one use of element V.(1 marks)

Being an inert gas, V is used in fluorescent tubes and bulbs.

(c) (i) State another group that G can be placcd in Figure 1. Explain. (2 marks)

Group 7.

Because G can either lose an electron to form G“ or gain an electron to form G.

(ii) How do the reactivity of elements J and K compare? Explain. (2 marks)

I is more reactive than K because of increase in the size of atoms. As we go down the group, the atoms increase in size so does reactivity. Outer electrons do not experience much nuclear attraction for bigger atoms.

OR

Reactivity increases down the group, effective nuclear attraction is greater in K than I’ atomic radius of I is greater than that of K.

(d) (i) Elements L and M form chlorides. Complete the following table by writing the formulae of each chloride and state the nature of the solutions. (2 marks)

LCl₂ Neutral

MCl₃ /M₂Cl₃ Acidic

(ii) The chloride of element M vapourises easily while its oxide has a high melting point. Explain. (2 marks)

Chloride of M vaporizes easily because of weak van der Waals forces between its dimer

Its oxide has a high melting point because of strong ionic bond is difficult to break.

3. (a) Complete Table I by indicating the observations, type of permanent or temporary change and name of new compound formed.

(b) Use the set-up in Figure 3 to answer the questions that follow. The flask was covered with a cloth that had been soaked in ice-cold water.

(i) State the observation made on the coloured water. Explain.(2 marks)

Coloured water moves towards the flask.

Cold cloth contributes to decrease in temperate causing decrease in volume; this creates a vacuum maling the ink tO move towards the flask.

(ii) Name the gas law illustrated in Figure 3.(1 marks)

Charle’s law

(c) Use the standard electrode potentials in Table 2 to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Write the half-cell representation for the element whose electrode potential is for hydrogen. (1 mark)

W⁺_(aq)W_2(G)/Pt

(ii) Arrange the elements in order of reducing power, starting with the weakest reducing agent. (1 mark)

U,Z,X,W₂V,Y,

(iii) Select two half cells which combine to give a cell with the least e.m.f. (1 mark)

V²⁺/V and W⁺/W₂

II Calculate the e.m.f of the half cells identified in (iii) . (1 mark)

e.m.f= 0.00- (-0.40)

+0.40V

4. An experiment was carried out to prepare crystals of magnesium sulphate.

Excess magnesi um powder was added to l00cm’of dilute sulphuric(VI) acid in a beaker and warmed until no further reaction took place.

The mixture was filtered and the filtrate evaporated to saturation, then lcft to cool for crystals to form.

(a) (i) Write an equation for the reaction.(1 mark)

Mg _(s) + H₂SO₄ -> MgSO_{4 + H2}

(ii) Explain why excess magnesium powder was used.(1 mark)

To ensure all the acid was used up.

(iii) State how completion of the reaction was determined.(1 mark)

When effervescence stops and presence of unreacted magnesium.

(iv) What is meant by a saturated solution?(1 mark)

Saturated solution is one that cannot dissolve any more solute at a particular temperature.

(v) Explain why the filtrate was not evaporated to dryness.(2 mark)

Because magnesium sulphate is a hydrated salt and evaporation to dryness causes it to lose it water of crystallization / crystals would not be formed because water of crystallization is lost through heating.

(b) When bleaching powder, CaOC1„ is treated with dilute nitric(V) acid, chlorine gas is released.

This reaction can be used to determine the chlorine content of various samples of bleaching powders and liquids.

(i) Write an equation for the reaction of nitric(V) acid with bleaching powder.(1 mark)

CaOC1_2(s) +2HNO₃ -> Ca(NO₃)2t -> Cl₂(g) +H₂

(ii) Calculate the volume of chlorine produced when 10 g of CaOC1, is treated with excess nitric(V) acid. (Ca = 40.0; O = 16.0; Cl = 35.5; 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4dm³ at s.t.p) (3 marks)

Volume of chlorine produced Mass of CaOClsub>2 = 40 + 16 + 71

=56 + 71

127

Moles of CaOClz — 10 = 0.0787 moles >1 127

Moles of CnOC/ —— moles of CU 1 mole CU —— 22.4 dm³ 0.0787 = ?

0.0787 x 22.4 — 1.763 dm³

(c) Apart from use of chlorine gas in bleaches and water treatment, state two other uses of chlorine gas. (1 mark)

• Manufacture of hydrochloric acid;

• Manufacture of PVC polymers;

• Manufacture of potassium ch1orate(V);

• Manufacture of carbon tetrachloride;

• Manufacture of chloroform.

5. (a) The diagram in Figure 4 was used to prepare hydrogen chloride gas which was passed over heated iron powder.

(i) Give a pair of reagents that will produce hydrogen chloride gas in flask A. (2 marks)

Concentrated sulphuric(VI) acid and sodium chloride.

(ii) Name the substance in flask B.(1 marks)

Concentrated sulphuric(VI) acid.

(iii) State the observation made in the combustion tube.(1 marks)

Grey Iron powder turns green / solid glows red

(iv) Write an equation for the reaction in the combustion tube.(1 marks)

Fe_s + 2HCl —+ FeCl₂ + H₂

(v) Describe a chemical test for hydrogen chloride gas.(1 marks)

Open a bottle of concentrated ammonia and place it near HCI dense white fumes of NH₄ Cl are observed.

(b) (i) Identify the gas that bums at the jet.(1 marks)

Hydrogen gas

(ii) Explain why the gas in (b) (i) is burned.(1 marks)

To prevent an explosion since a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen explodes

(c) Give reasons why excess hydrogen chloride gas is dissolved using the funnel arrangement. (2 marks)

To prevent suck back

To increase surface area for dissolution of hydrogen chloride in water

(d) State what will be observed when the reaction in the combustion tube is complete.(1 marks)

The flame will go off.

(e) Another experiment was carried out where hydrogen chloride gas was bubbled through methylbeiizene and water in separate beakers.

The resulting solutions were tested with blue litmus papers and marble chips.

(i) Write the observations made in the following table.

(ii) Explain the observations in (e) (i).(2 marks)

In water the hydrogen chloride ionizes to form hydrogen ions and chloride ions. / In methylbenzene which is non polar, 6. (a) In Kenya, sodium carbonate is extracted from trona at Lake Magadi. (i) Give the formula of trona.

Na₂CO₃.NaHCO₃.H₂O

(ii) Name the process of extracting sodium carbonate from trona.(2 marks)

Fractional crystallization.

(b) The flow chart in Figure 5 summarises the steps involved in the production of sodium carbonate. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Name the process illustrated in Figure 5.(1 mark)

Solvay process

(ii) Identify the starting raw materials required in the production of sodium carbonate. (2 marks)

Brine, ammonia, calcium carbonate and water

(iii) Write equations for the two reactions that occur in the carbonator. (2 marks)

NH₃ + COC + H₂O —+ NH₄ HCO₂

(iv) Name two substances that are recycled.

Ammonia and Carbon(IV) oxide, water

(v) Identify:

Solid X – Calcium hydroxide >1 [Ca(OH)₂

Process W – Thermal decomposition

(vi) Write an equation for the reaction that produces solution Z.(l mark)

NH₄Cl +Ca(OH)₂ 2NH₂ CaCl₂ + H₂

(vii) Apart from softening hard water, state two other uses of sodium carbonate. (2 marks)

• Glass making

• Paper industry

• Sodium silicate in making detergents

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Kenya certificate of primary Education

2018 Chemistry paper 1

1. (a) Define a soluble base. (1 mark)

(b) Aqueous solutions of 2M ethanoic acid and 2M nitric(V) acid were tested for electrical conductivity. Which solution is a better conductor of electricity? Explain. (2 marks)

2. (a) Explain why it is not advisable to prepare a sample of carbon(IV) oxide using barium carbonate and dilute sulphuric(VI) acid. (2 marks)

(b) State a method that can be used to collect dry carbon(IV) oxide gas. Give a reason. (l mark)

3. The following are formulae of organic compounds. Use the formulae to answer the questions that follow:

CH₃CH CH₂OH

CH₃ OOH

CH₃CH₂CH 2CH

CH₃CCCH₃ (a) Select:

(i) two compounds which when reacted together produce a sweet smelling compound. (1 mark)

(ii) an unsaturated hydrocarbon.(1 mark)

(b) Name the compound selected in (a) (ii).(1 mark)

4. One of the allotropes of sulphur is rhombic sulphur.

(a) Name the other allotrope of sulphur.(1 mark)

(b) Draw a diagram to show the shape of the allotrope named in (a) above.(1 mark)

(c) Write an equation for the reaction between concentrated sulphuric(VI) acid and sulphur.(1 mark)

5. Describe an experiment to show that group one elements react with cold water to form alkaline solutions. (3 marks)

6. (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (1 mark)

(b) Explain why a balloon filled with helium gas deflates faster than a balloon of the same size filled with argon gas. (2 marks)

7. 30.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralised by 0.294 g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of the dibasic acid. (Na = 23.0 ; O = 16.0 ; H 1.0) (3 marks)

8. Study the flow chart in Figure 1 and answer the questions that follow.

Gas N forms a while suspension with aqueous calcium hydroxide.(1 mark)

(a) Name the anion present in the potassium salt.(1 mark)

(b) Write an ionic equation for the formation of solid M.(1 mark)

(c) Give one use of gas N.(1 mark)

9.An experiment was carried out to determine the presence of substancePQR and S in mixture T.the results obtained are as follows

(a) Name the method of sepration illustrated in figure 2

(ii) a substance wh‹eh is least soluble in t)ie solvent used. 10. Using iron filings, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that oxygen is present in air. (3 marks)

11. (a) Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare? Explain. (3 marks)

12. When ethene gas is compressed at a high temperature, a solid is formed.

(a) Give the name of the solid. (I mark)

(b) Explain why it is not advisable to allow the solid to accumulate in the environment. (2 marks)

13. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3112(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g) ; AH = —92 kJ mol**

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)

(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

14. Figure 3 shows a set-up used by a student to prepare dry chlorine gas in the laboratory.

Identify three mistakes in the set-up, and give a reason for each. (3 marks)

15. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared. (3 marks)

16. Metal X and Y have standard electrode potentials of —0.13 V and —0.76V respectively, T metals were connected to fonn a cell as shown in Figure 4.

(a) Name the part labelled Z.

(b) State one function of the part labelled Z.

(c) Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell. (1 mark)

17. Figure 5 represents a grid that is part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

(a) Write the electron arrangement of element C. (1 mark)

(b) On the grid provided, show with a tick (I) the position of element D whose atomic number is 18. (1 mark)

(c) Element E is more reactive than A. Explain.

18. (a) Define molar heat of displacement. (1 mark)

(b) The following ionic equation represents the reaction between metal Y and an aqueot solution of Z°+.

Z°+ (aq) + Y(s) Z(s) + Y2 (aq); AH = -ve

Draw an energy level diagram to represent the reaction.

19. (a) Give the symbols of the two charged particles emitted by a radioactive isotope. (2 marks)

(b) An isotope 2 0 Pb disintegrates by emitting two beta particles. Determine the mass number and atomic number of the resulting nuclide.

20. (a) Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid according to the following equation. Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Identify the reducing agent. Give a reason for the answer. (2 marks)

(b) Iron sheets are dipped in molten zinc to prevent rusting. Name this process. (l mark)

21. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)

(c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)

22. You are provided with the following: thermometer, boiling tube, beaker, Bunsen burner, pure substance X whose boiling point is about 80°C, water and any other apparatus that may be required. Draw a labelled diagram of the set-up that can be used to determine the melting point ofX. (3 marks)

23. Explain why it is important to put off a non-luminous flame immediately after use. (2 marks)

24. (a) Name two ores of iron. (1 mark)

(b) Describe how the amount of iron in a sample of iron(III) oxide can be determined. (2 marks)

25. Explain why a solution of sodium chloride conducts electricity while that of sugar does not. (2 marks)

26. Explain why commercial indicators are preferred to flower extracts as aCid-base indicators. (2 marks)

27. (NH, )2HPO4 is a fertiliser used by farmers to boost their crop production. (a) Calculate the mass of phosphorus in a 20 kg packet of + * 4)2HPO4. (N = 14.0; H — 1.0; P = 31.0; O = 16.0) (2 marks)

(b) State one advantage of this fertilizer, (NH4)2HPO4, over urea (CO(NH 2)2)- (1 mark)

28.Distinguish between emprical and molecular formular of a compond

Questions and Answers

2018 Chemistry paper 2

1. (a) Define a soluble base. (1 mark)

A soluble base is a substance that dissociates in water to produce hydroxide ions as the only negative ions.

(b) Aqueous solutions of 2M ethanoic acid and 2M nitric(V) acid were tested for electrical conductivity. Which solution is a better conductor of electricity? Explain. (2 marks)

Nitric(V) acid. This is because nitric(V) acid is a strong acid and dissociates completely in solution producing many H+ ions.

2. (a) Explain why it is not advisable to prepare a sample of carbon(IV) oxide using barium carbonate and dilute sulphuric(VI) acid. (2 marks)

– The reaction starts but soon stops.

This is because the insoluble barium sulphate produced forms a coating on the surface of the barium carbonate preventing further reaction and evolution of carbon(IV) oxide gas.

(b) State a method that can be used to collect dry carbon(IV) oxide gas. Give a reason. (l mark)

– Downward delivery.

– Carbon(IV) oxide is denser than air.

3. The following are formulae of organic compounds. Use the formulae to answer the questions that follow:

CH₃CH CH₂OH

CH₃ OOH

CH₃CH₂CH 2CH

CH₃CCCH₃ (a) Select:

(i) two compounds which when reacted together produce a sweet smelling compound. (1 mark)

CH CH CH OH and CH.,COOH

(ii) an unsaturated hydrocarbon.(1 mark)

CH^P CCCH

(b) Name the compound selected in (a) (ii).(1 mark)

But-2-yne

4. One of the allotropes of sulphur is rhombic sulphur.

(a) Name the other allotrope of sulphur.(1 mark)

Monoclinic sulphur / beta sulphur / prismatic sulphur

(b) Draw a diagram to show the shape of the allotrope named in (a) above.(1 mark)

(c) Write an equation for the reaction between concentrated sulphuric(VI) acid and sulphur.(1 mark)

S + 2H₂SO₄ -> 3SO2 + 2H₂0

5. Describe an experiment to show that group one elements react with cold water to form alkaline solutions. (3 marks)

Place a small piece of sodium metal on water in a trough.

When the reaction stops, drop a strip of red litmus paper to the resulting solution. The red litmus paper turns blue showing that the resulting solution is alkaline. ( Any indicator used)

6. (a) State Graham’s law of diffusion. (1 mark)

The rate of diffiision of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its denslty at constant temperature and pressure.

(b) Explain why a balloon filled with helium gas deflates faster than a balloon of the same size filled with argon gas. (2 marks)

Helium is less dense than argon hence it diffuses out of the balloon faster than argon.

7. 30.0 cm3 of aqueous sodium hydroxide containing 8.0 g per litre of sodium hydroxide were completely neutralised by 0.294 g of a dibasic acid. Determine the relative formula mass of the dibasic acid. (Na = 23.0 ; O = 16.0 ; H 1.0) (3 marks)

8. Study the flow chart in Figure 1 and answer the questions that follow.

Gas N forms a while suspension with aqueous calcium hydroxide.(1 mark)

(a) Name the anion present in the potassium salt.(1 mark)

Carbonate (CO₃² )

(b) Write an ionic equation for the formation of solid M.(1 mark)

Ba^{2+(aq) * CO32 (aq) —› BaCO₃(S)}

(c) Give one use of gas N.(1 mark)

– Making soft drinks/aerated drinks;

– In refrigeration;

– In extinguishing fires;

– Making baking powder; Manufacture of sodium carbonate; Cloud seeding.

9.An experiment was carried out to determine the presence of substancePQR and S in mixture T.the results obtained are as follows

(a) Name the method of sepration illustrated in figure 2

Chromatography/paper chromatography

(ii)A substance which is least soluble in the solvent used.

Q

10. Using iron filings, describe an experiment that can be conducted to show that oxygen is present in air. (3 marks)

Wet a measuring cylinder/gas jar and sprinkle some iron filings on the wet surface. Remove the excess iron filings;

Invert the measuring cylinder in a trough of water; – Take the reading of the air column in the measuring cylinder. Leave the set-up for 2 days;

Read and record the volume of the air column;

11. (a) Element U has atomic number 12 while element V has atomic number 16. How do the melting points of their oxides compare? Explain. (3 marks)

The oxide of U has higher melting point than the oxide of V;

This is because the oxide of U is a solid with ionic bonds hence requires a lot of energy to melt;

The oxide of V is a gas hence requires little energy to melt/break molecular forces of attraction.

12. When ethene gas is compressed at a high temperature, a solid is formed.

(a) Give the name of the solid. (I mark)

Polythene / Polyethene

(b) Explain why it is not advisable to allow the solid to accumulate in the environment. (2 marks)

It is non-biodegradable, hence pollutes the environment.

13. In the Haber process, nitrogen reacts with hydrogen according to the following equation.

3H2(g) + N2(g) 2NH3(g) ; AH = —92 kJ mol**

(a) What would be the effect of adding a catalyst on the position of the equilibrium? (1 mark)

No effect/does not affect the position of the equilibrium.

(b) Explain why it is not advisable to use temperatures higher than 773 K in the Haber process. (2 marks)

Forward reaction is exothermic, excessive temperatures would favour the backward reaction therefore lowering the yield of ammonia.

14. Figure 3 shows a set-up used by a student to prepare dry chlorine gas in the laboratory.

Identify three mistakes in the set-up, and give a reason for each. (3 marks)

– One reagent is missing, hence reagents provided cannot produce chlorine;

– Wrong drying agent — Calcium oxide will react with the chlorine gas;

– Incorrect method of gas collection – No gas will be collected / chlorine is denser than air.

15. You are provided with solid potassium hydrogen carbonate. Describe how a solid sample of potassium nitrate can be prepared. (3 marks)

Measure a certain volume of dilute nitric(V) acid and place it in a beaker;

Add potassium hydrogen carbonate little by little as the mixture is stirred until effervescence stops;

Evaporate the solution to saturation and allow to cool for crystals to form;

Dry the crystals in between filter papers.

16. Metal X and Y have standard electrode potentials of —0.13 V and —0.76V respectively, T metals were connected to fonn a cell as shown in Figure 4.

(a) Name the part labelled Z.

Salt bridge

(b) State one function of the part labelled Z.

– Provides electrical contact between the electrodes//completes the circuit;

(c) Calculate the e.m.f. of the cell. (1 mark)

—0.13 – 0.76

=+0.63K

17. Figure 5 represents a grid that is part of the periodic table. Study it and answer the questions that follow. The letters are not the actual symbols of the elements.

– Provides cations and anions to replace those used up.

(a) Write the electron arrangement of element C. (1 mark)

2.8.4

(b) On the grid provided, show with a tick (I) the position of element D whose atomic number is 18. (1 mark)

period 3, group 8

(c) Element E is more reactive than A. Explain.

E has a bigger atomic radius than A / the valence electrons of element E are further from the nucleus, hence loosely held by the positive nucleus and requires less energy to be removed during reaction.

OR

A has a smaller atomic radius than E / the valence electrons of element A are closer to the nucleus, hence strongly held by the positive nucleus and requires more energy to be removed during a reaction.

18. (a) Define molar heat of displacement.

(1 mark)

Molar heat of displacement is the enthalpy change that occurs when one mole of a substance is displaced from its ions in solution.

(b) The following ionic equation represents the reaction between metal Y and an aqueot solution of Z°+.

Z°+ (aq) + Y(s) Z(s) + Y2 (aq); AH = -ve

Draw an energy level diagram to represent the reaction.

19. (a) Give the symbols of the two charged particles emitted by a radioactive isotope.(2 marks)

a – positively charged / 2ffe

@ – negatively charged / Je

²¹⁰₈₂Pb -> ^a_bX + 2º

(b) An isotope 2 0 Pb disintegrates by emitting two beta particles. Determine the mass number and atomic number of the resulting nuclide.

a = 210 + 0 = 210

b = 82 + 2 = 84

mass no = 210 Atomic number = 84

20. (a) Zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid according to the following equation. Zn(s) + 2HCl (aq) ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g) Identify the reducing agent. Give a reason for the answer. (2 marks)

– Reducing agent — Zn

– The oxidation number of Zn increased from 0 to +2 OR

Zn loses electrons form zinc ions/ Zn is oxidized to Zn2+

(b) Iron sheets are dipped in molten zinc to prevent rusting. Name this process. (l mark)

Galvanization

21. Study the set-up in Figure 6 and answer the questions that follow.

(a) Name the substance that was collected in tube P. (1 mark)

Water

(b) Write an equation for the reaction which occurs in tube Q in the first few minutes of the experiment. (1 mark)

COZ + Ca (OH)_{2O -> CaCO3 + H2O (c) Give a suitable conclusion for the experiment in the set-up. (1 mark)}

Burning candle /organic matter produces water and carbon(V) oxide. OR Candle contains carbon and hydrogen / candle is a hydrocarbon

22. You are provided with the following: thermometer, boiling tube, beaker, Bunsen burner, pure substance X whose boiling point is about 80°C, water and any other apparatus that may be required.

Draw a labelled diagram of the set-up that can be used to determine the melting point ofX. (3 marks)

23. Explain why it is important to put off a non-luminous flame immediately after use. (2 marks)

A non -luminous flame is invisible, hence it should be put off to avoid being accidentally burned.

24. (a) Name two ores of iron. (1 mark)

– Haematite;

– Magnetite;

– Siderite.

(b) Describe how the amount of iron in a sample of iron(III) oxide can be determined. (2 marks)

– Weigh the Iron(III) oxide together with a crucible;

– Heat the Iron(III) oxide and coke to a constant mass;

– Cool and re-weigh residue and crucible

– The difference in mass is weight of the iron.

25. Explain why a solution of sodium chloride conducts electricity while that of sugar does not. (2 marks)

A solution of sodium chloride contains ions which are free to conduct electricity while that of sugar contains molecules hence cannot conduct electricity.

26. Explain why commercial indicators are preferred to flower extracts as aCid-base indicators.(2 marks)

The composition of commercial indicators remains constant. hence gives consistent results.

The composition of flower extracts change with time giving inconsistent results.

27. (NH, )2HPO4 is a fertiliser used by farmers to boost their crop production.

(a) Calculate the mass of phosphorus in a 20 kg packet of + * 4)2HPO4.

(N = 14.0; H — 1.0; P = 31.0; O = 16.0) (2 marks)

(b) State one advantage of this fertilizer, (NH4)2HPO4, over urea (CO(NH 2)2)- (1 mark)

has two nutrients available to crops, nitrogen and phosphorus, urea has only nitrogen.

28.Distinguish between emprical and molecular formular of a compond

Empirical formula shows the Simplest whole number ratio of the moles of atoms of different elements in a compound while the molecular formula shows the actual number of atoms of various elements present in one molecule of the compound.

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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2018 Computer Studies – Paper1

2 1. (a) In a school, students reside in three dormitories Red, Blue and Orange. Each dormitory is managed by a patron and each student is required to register for a game.

(i) Open a database program and create a database named schoolgames that would be used to manage the games. (1 mark)

(ii) Create the tables named; Student, Patron, Dormitory and Game in the database created in (i) using the following specifications. (7 marks)

Student table

Field name	Description
Stud No	Contains  unique registration code
Studname	Contains the name of a student
Gamecode	Contains codes of each game
Dormcode	codes codes of each dormitory

Patron table

Field name	Description
Patroncode	Contains the  patronode name
Patronname	Contains the patron name

Dormitory table

Field name	Description
Dormcode	Contains the Dormcode name
Dormname	Contains the domitory code
Patroncode	Contains the domitory patron code

Game table

Field name	Description
Gamecode	contains the game code
Gamename	contains the name of the game

(iii) Create the relationships between the tables. (3 marks)

(b) (i) Create a form for each table that would be used for data entry. (2 marks)

(ii) Enter the following data into their respective tables:(9 marks)

Student table

Stud No	Stud name	Gamecode	Dormcode
Koo1	Ann	Gmoo4	D003
Koo2	Chris	Gmoo3	D001
Koo3	Jared	Gmoo1	D002
Koo4	Julian	Gmoo4	D003
Koo5	Marion	Gmoo1	D003
Koo6	Janet	Gmoo2	D003
Koo7	Tom	Gmoo2	D002
Koo8	Jerry	Gmoo3	D002

Patron table

Patroncode	patronname
Poo1	Maurice
Poo2	Edward
Poo3	Jane

Dormitory table

Dormcode	Dormname	Patroname
D00l	Red	P001
D002	Blue	P002
D003	Orange	P003

Games table

Gamecode	Gamename
Gmoo1	Basketball
Gmoo2	Volleyball
Gmoo3	Table Tenis
Gmoo4	Netball

(c) Create a query to extract each of the following details:

(i) StudNo, Studentname and Gamename for all students who reside in the Orange dormitory or play Basketball. Save the query as orangeq. (5 marks)

(ii) StudNo, studentname, gamename for the students whose studentname start with letter “J”. Save the query as Jquery. (3 marks)

(d) (i) Create a tabular report showing the StudNo, Studentname, Dormname, Patronname, Gamename and grouped by Gamename. Save the report as reportgame. (8 marks)

(ii) Format the report created in (i) as follows:

I Replace the report title with the text “players for each game” (1 mark)

II Enter your name and index as a report footer. III Bold the dormitory names in the report. (e) Print out each of the following:

(i) Student, Patron, Game and Dormitory tables

(ii) Jquery and orangeq

(iii) reportgame

2 (a) (i) Open a word processing program and key in the following text as it appears. Save the documents as socialnetwork. (11 marks)

SOCIAL NETWORKING

Social networking platforms are used by organisation to improve communication and productivity by disseminating information among different groups of employees in a more efficient manner.

The advantages and disadvantages of social media are as follows.

Advantages

• Facilities open communication.

• Allows employees to discuss ideas.

• Provides an opportunity to widen business contracts.

• Targets a wide audience.

• Improves business reputation and client base.

• Expands market research.

Disadvantages

 

• Susceptible to fraud
• Potentially results to hate speech
• Destructs normal business operationsEmployers do have the right to ban computer activity that is not work related, this approach may not yield optimal results.If employees are to be allowed access to social networking platforms then a comprehensive and well defined policy should be established to prevent abuses.

  (ii) Format the document as follows:

  I Title: Font size l8pts, font colour red, font type Tahoma. (3 marks)

  II Apply double line spacing for the text under the sub title “Advantages”. (2 marks)

  III Apply a 4 lined drop cap on the first letter of first paragraph. (3 marks)

  IV Apply a two-columns format with a line between for the text with the two subtitles such that “Advantages” are to the left column and “Disadvantages” are in the right column. (4 marks)

  V Apply bold, italic and underline to subtitles “Advantages” and “Disadvantages”.

  (iii) Apply the following format to the document: (3 marks)

  I Insert a water mark with the text “social media” on the document of a font size of 20 and running diagonally from left to right. (4 marks)

  II Insert page numbers at the bottom centre of every page. (2 marks)

  III Insert the text “social networks” as a header aligned to the right. Apply italics to the header. (3 marks)

  (b) The following is a letter from a Principal of Malimali school to other Principals inviting them for a seminar at the country education offices.

  (i) Open a new document and create the following as it appears. Save the document as Malimali (2½ marks)

  The Principal

  >

  Dear Sir

  RE: SEMINAR MEETING

  You are invited to attend the Principal’s seminar which is scheduled to be at the county education office on the 2^nd of June 2015.

  You are booked to be in <> We are looking forward to a successful event.

  Yours Faithfully Lilango Jotema

  Malimali School Principal

  (ii) Use a mail merge feature to generate customised mails for the addresses shown in the following table. Save the mail merged document as Aletters. (9½ marks)

  School	Room
  Ginga School	Room 6
  Lubi School	Room 8
  Trans School	Room 10

  (c) Print out each of the following:(i) socialnetwork

  (ii) Malimali

  (iii) Aletters (3 marks)

  Questions and Answers

  2018 Computer Studies – Paper1

  1 (a)(i) Creating the database file @ 1 ½

  (ii) Creating of tables (at least 3) @1 ½

  Student table

  ✔ 4 Fields each @ ½ =2

  Patron table

  ✔ 2 Fields each @ ½ =1

  Dormitory table

  ✔ 3 Fields each @ ½ =1½

  Games table

  ✔ 2 Fields each @ ½ =1

  (iii) Relationship at least 3 each @ 1 =

  (b) (i) 4 forms for each table each @½ =2 = 2

  (ii) Entering data into the tables

  Student table

  ✔ 8 records each @ ½ =4

  Patron table

  ✔ 3 records each @ ½ = 1½

  Dormitory table

  ✔ 3 records each @½ = 1½

  Games table

  ✔ 4 records each @ ½ =2

  (c) (i) Creating the orangeq query

• Invoking the use of query@ 1
• selecting the fields @ 1
• Criteria applied to the fields @ 2✔ Saving the query @ 1(ii) Creating the j query query
• Invoking the use of query@ 1
• Criteria (letter j) @✔ 1 Saving the query @ 1(d) (i) Creating the report
• Using the report feature @ 1
• selecting the report fields @ 1
• selecting the 4 fields each @ 1=4
• Grouping @ 1
• Saving the query @ 1(ii) I. Replacing the report title @l✔ H. Entering name and index as report footer

  ✔Name and index @ l

  ✔Position the items in the footer @ 1

  HI. Bolding the text

  ✔Selecting the text @ 1

  ✔ applying bold format @l

  (e) Printing

  (i) 4 Tables each @ 1

  (ii) 2 queris each @ 1 =2

  (iii) The report @ 1

  2 (a) (i) Typing the story

• Title @½
• Centering the title @½
• First paragraph @ 2
• Paragraph under advantages @ 2
• Paragraph under disadvantages @ 2
• Last paragraph @ 2
• Bullets used in the advantages @ ½
• Bullets used in the disadvantages @ ‘½
• Saving @ 1(ii) I Formatting the title,p>
• Font size 18 @l
• Font colored @l
• Font typemahoma @lH Double underline
• Selection of text under advantages @l
• Applying double space @lIH Drop cap
• Selection the first letter @l
• Using drop cap feature @l
• Dropping through 4 lines @ 1IV Two columns
• Selection of text @l
• Using the column feature @l
• Applying a line between the columns @ 1
• Advantages to the left @ /z 4
• Formats applied on subtitles
• Bold@1
• Italics @l
• Underline @ 1(iii) I Water marks
• Using the watermark feature @ 1
• Typing the text social media in the watermark field @l
• Font size=20 @l
• Direction (Diagonal left to right) @lH Page numbering
• Using page numbering feature @½
• Inserting page numbers @ 1
• Centering the pages horizontally @/ 2III Header
• Using the header field @ /
• Typing the text in the header field @ 1
• Alignment at the right @½
• Applying italics @ 1(b)(i) Main document
• Typing text @l
• Applying formats ½
• Saving the document @ 1(ii) Main document
• Creation of datasource @3
• Saving the datasource @l
• Using the mail merge feature @½
• Inserting the 2 fields at each @l =2
• Generating the merged document 2
• Saving the merged document @ 1kcse exam 2020
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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2018 Computer Studies – Paper1

1. State two reasons for the increased use of laptop computers in government offices. (2 marks)

2. Computer network technicians prefer to use command-line based operating system when configuring networks. State three reasons for the preference. (3 marks)

3. State three measures that should be put in place in a computer laboratory to safeguard users’ health. (3 marks)

4. State three ways in which barcode readers may be used in schools.(3 marks)

5. State three advantage of flat panel monitors over cathode ray tube monitors as used in computers. (3 marks)

6. State three possible reasons for the extinction of daisy wheel printers in the market. (3 marks)

7. State three ways in which an operating system secures a computer system. (3 mark)

8. A law firm prefers to use hard copy output over soft copy output when handling documents for legal matters. State two reasons for this preference. (2 marks)

9. State the function of each of the following features in a word processor application: (a) Thesaurus;(1 marks)

(b) Comments.(1 marks)

10. With the aid of an example, explain the term multi-level list as used in word processing. (3 marks)

11. Distinguish between real-time operating system and distributed operating system. (3 marks)

12. Explain the function of protect sheet feature in a spreadsheet program. (2 marks)

13. State four computer-based careers introduced as a result of computerised data processing method at the airport. (2 marks)

14. In a spreadsheet, the formula =If(A1>10, A1*77, A1*50) is entered in a cell. Interpret the results. (3 marks)

15. State a stage in systems development life cycle where each of the following activities are carried out:

(a) identifying the technologies that may be used in a proposed system; (1 mark)

(b) identifying shortcomings of a system; (1 mark)

(c) preparing the system migration plan.(1 marks)

. SECTION B (60 marks)

Answer question 16 and any other three questions from this section in the spaces provided.

16. (a) With the aid of a flow chart, describe a loop control structure as used in programming.(4 marks)

(b) Study the following pseudocode and answer the questions that follow.

1. Start

2. Get value l and value2

3. If value I > value2 Then

4. Maximum = valuel

5. Else If value l < value2 Then

6. Maximum = value2

8. Else Go to 9

9. Display Maximum

10. Stop

(i) State the purpose of the pseudocode.(1 mark)

(ii) Draw a flowchart equivalent to the pseudocode. (6 marks)

(c) Distinguish between a source program and a compiler as used in computer programming.(4 marks)

17. (a) (i) Explain the term search engine as used in the Internet.(2 marks)

(ii) Peter intends to download a movie from the Internet.

State the three factors that may determine the total time taken to complete the download. (3 marks)

(b) Wakulima online is an organisation that runs a web based system for assisting farmers to obtain market for their farm produce.

State four technological reasons that may cause a farmer not to access the organisation’s system. (4 marks)

(c) Explain a situation when each of the following Desktop Publishing program features may be used when creating a publication:

(i) cropping;(2 marks)

(ii) transparency.(2 marks)

(d) List two areas where infrared waves are used in data communication.(2 marks)

18. (a) State four activities of the planning stage of systems development. (4 marks)

(b) Explain a circumstance when each of the following feasibility studies are carried out during systems development:

(i) Technical;(2 marks)

(ii) Economic;(2 marks)

(iii) Schedule.(2 marks)

(c) Table 1 and Table 2 are related tables in a database. Use them to answer the questions that follow.

Table 1

Dept Code	Dept Name
001	Computer
002	Aviation
003	Engineering

Table 2

Dept ID	Students Registration No.	Students Name
002	st1	Alex Toro
003	st2	Naomi Komi
002	st3	Peter Kengo

(i) Identify the appropriate primary key for each table. (1 mark)

(iii) Explain two benefits of enforcing referential integrity in the database. (4 marks)

19. (a) Describe each of the following validation checks as used in data processing:

(i) Preserve check;(2 marks)

(ii) Data type check;(2 marks)

(iii) Check digit.(2 marks)

(b) Write each of the following abbreviations in full:

(i) BCD;(1 marks)

(ii) EBCD;(1 marks)

(iii) ASCII.(1 mark)

(c) Using 10 — bits binary number system, perform the following decimal operation using two’s complement (6 marks)

l29₁₀ 128₁₀

20. (a) The figure shows a network design. Use it to answer the questions that follow.

(i) Explain the function of each of the following in the network. I Router;

II Firewall;(2 marks)

III File server.(2 marks)

(ii) State two categories of software that must be installed in a computer so that users can use it to access the internet. (2 marks)

(b) State four ways in which computers may be used to manage data in a research environment.(4 marks)

(c) Some computer companies have opted to use the Internet to provide shared processing resources and online application services to users.

State three advantages that this approach will have on their customers. (3 marks)

Questions and Answers

2018 Computer Studies – Paper1

1. Reasons for the preference for laptops.

 

• They are small and fit in a small storage space.
• They are light weight hence can be carried to areas where their services are required.
• The monitor, system unit, keyboard units are attached together hence making its use to be convenient.
• Rechargeable / backup battery. Any 2 x 12. Reasons for the use of command — line interface OS
• They do not take up a lot of memory hence boot faster than the GUI OS.
• They have direct access or most hardware devices.
• They are cheaper to acquire as some can be downloaded free of charge. They can run on lower —bit hardware systems such as 32-bit computers. Any 3 x 13. Measures to be put in place in the laboratory to safeguard user health.
• All power cables must be insulated and hidden from users.
• The furniture used must be of standard computer furniture.
• The room should be lit with adequate lighting.
• The room must be ventilated.
• Computer monitor should be fitted with antiglare to filter excess light rays emanating from the monitor.
• Avoid slippery floors/cemented floors.
• Controlling dust.4. Ways in which barcode readers can be used in a school.
• To take inventory of items in the school.
• To keep track of employee login log out.
• Used to transact business in the library.
• Used to keep track of movement of goods.5. Advantages of flat panel monitors.
• They are compact and light weight;
• They consume less power;
• They do not suffer from geometrical distortions;
• They do not cause eye fatigue.
• They support many advanced technologies;
• They can be made in almost any size and shape; They support higher resolution.
• Low heat radiation.6. Reasons why daisy wheel printer are in extinct.
• They supported one font size and font face;
• They were monochrome printers;
• They produced noise while printing;
• They were very slow;
• Did not print graphics.
• Had poor print quality.7. Ways in which an OS secures computer system:
• Access controls: Authentication of users in order to access files;
• Performing regular patches of updates;
• Creating secure accounts with required privileges;
• Scrutinizing all incoming and outgoing packets of data through a firewall;
• Encryption of data, during the transmission stage; Password / biometric analysis;
• Log files to detect any breach. Any 3 x 18. Advantages of hardcopy output.
• – They are acceptable as exhibit in cases of litigation.
• Can be used without a computer.
• They are difficult to change without leaving any trace.
• They can be used without power.
• They can be used without the experience of computer usage. Any 2 x 19. (i) Thesaurus:

  It is a feature in a word processor that suggest words with similar or opposite meaning to the selected word @l.

  (ii) Comments:

  It is a feature in WP that allows a user to attach a remark about the selection @l.

  10. Multilevel list:

  It is a format style that shows the listed items of different levels rather than one at one level.

  Each level has different indentation and numbering style @2.

  Example (Accept any)

  1. Chapter One

  Introduction

  Definition of terms @l.

  11. Distinction between real-time and distributed OS.

• Real-time OS reads information from input devices and must respond within a short duration of time to ensure correct performance.
• Distributed OS distributes computation among several physical processors which do not share memory or clock.12. Function of protect sheet:
• It is a feature used to prevent unwanted changes to be made on the data contained in a sheet by limit the ability to make changes.13. Computer based careers created by introducing computerized data processing.
• System analysts Hardware technicians
• Data entry clerks
• Programmers Networks techniciansDatabase administrators
• Web designers
• Network administrator14. = If (A1 > 10, Al * 77, Al * 50)

  Compares the value in cell Al If it is greater than 10, if comparison is True, the results of operations Al * 77 is displayed, if it is False the results of the operations Al * 50 is displayed.

  15. (a) Identifying technologies that could be used in the system.

  — System ana1ysis/ information gathering/problem recognition (@ 1)

  (b) Identifying the shortcoming of the old system

  — Problem definition

  (@ 1)

  (c) Prepares the software migration plan

  — Implementation stage (@ 1) 3

  Section B (60 Marks) Marking Scheme

  16. (a) Looping is the control structure that allows a block of code/statements to be repeated until a certain condition is fulfilled. @ 2 marks

  

  Accept any type of looping control structure

  

  (c) Distinction between a source program and compiler

• Source program is the original computer based instructions written by a programmer in a programming language whileA compiler is a program that processes statements/instructions and translates them into machine language.

  17. (a) (i) Search-engine

  It is a web-based application used to locate for an item or information from world wide web.

  (ii) Factors that affects duration of download

• The size of the video
• The band width of the media used
• Availability of network
• Other activities that may be running in the computer.
• Other restrictions enforced in the computer
• The restrictions by the ISP
• Speed of computer (Any 3 @ l)(b) Causes of Wakulima system’s failure
• Lack of power supply to the system servers.
• Network infrastructure breakdown/poor network coverage/lack of connection.
• Program failure in the system/malware (virus).
• Hardware failure in the system.
• Human action which could be accidental or intentional.
• Lack of access rights.
• System overload (Any 4 @ 1 mark)(c) (i) Cropping

  Used when handling a graphic and there is a need to remove some of the portions in the graphic.

  (ii) Transparency

  Used when there is a need to make the background of a graphic to be visible.

  (d) Areas where infra-red radio waves are used.

• TV remote control communication; DVD remote control communication
• Communication between peripheral devices and the computer
• Data link over short distance using mobile phones Radio remote control
• Remote locking / opening doors/devices18. (a) Activities at the planning stages
• Identify opportunity for the new project.
• Analyse feasibility to establish the viability of the project.
• Develop a work plan.
• Identify appropriate staff to work in the project.
• Control and direct the project.(b) (i) Technical Feasibility

  Meant to determine whether the proposed solution is technically practical/establish whether the technology is available /expertise is available. (@ 2)

  (ii) Economic Feasibility

  Meant to establish whether the proposed system will be cost effective. (@ 2)

  (iii) Schedule Feasibility

  Meant to establish whether the system can be implemented within an acceptable time kame. (@ 2)

  (c) (i) Primary keys in the table Table 1 : Dept code @

  Table 2 : Student’s Registration No. @

  (ii) Benefits of referential integrity in the table

• No record can be added to the table 2 if its corresponding record in Table 1 does not exist.
• No record in Table 1 can be deleted without first deleting associated records in Table 2.
• Reduces data redundancies.
• Prevent deletion of related tables. (Any 2 x 2)19. (a) (i) Preserve check

  It is a measure placed used to ensure that data item is in its original status. (@ 2 marks)

  (ii) Data type check

  It is a measure that ensures that correct data type is entered for each field. (@ 2 marks)

  (iii) Check digit

  This is a number calculated by the computer to make sure that the other numbers in a sequence have been entered properly. (@ 2 marks)

  (b) (i) BCD

  Binary Coded Decimal

  (o i)

  (ii) EBCDIC

  Extended Binary Coded Decimal Interchange Code.

  (iii) ASCII

  American Standard Code for Information Interchange

  

  20. (a) (i) I. Router It is the device meant to forward data packets between computer network in the school and the internet. (@ 2 marks)

  H. Firewall

  It is a device that prevents unauthorized access to or from a private network (school’s LAN) (@ 2 marks)

  III. File server

  It is a computer attached to a network whose purpose is to provide location for shared disk access (shared storage of computer files). (@ 2 marks)

  (ii) Software to be installed in a computer

• Network operating system
• Browser/Mozi11a,firefox Necessary system drivers to supports installed hardware
• Protocols(SMTP,HTTP) (Any 2 @ 1 mark)(b) Use of computers in research for data management
• Used for data manipulation;
• Computers aid in data capturing;
• Computers can be used to store researched and analysed data;
• Information in computers can be a secondary source of data;
• Computers can be used to generate reports;
• Computers can be used to communicate researched work. (Any 4 x 1)(c) Advantages of online application services and shared processing resources.

  Users will not be required to have powerful processing devices;

• Users can access the services from anywhere in the world;
• Users can access services at any time (24/7);
• Users can offload their data to the cloud infrastructure;
• Users can collaborate with remote users to process the data;
• The approach will cut out high cost of hardware;
• Sharing of resources;
• Faster access to service;
• Cost effective;
• Orders are made without going to the shop. (Any 3 x 1)
  

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FREE KCSE 2017 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2016 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2015 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2014 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS

 

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2018 Business Studies paper 2

1. (a)Explain five circumstances that may lead to the existence of a business opportunity to be exploited by the entrepreneur. (10 marks)

(b) Explain five factors that Chuma Steel Manufacturers may consider when choosing a channel for distributing their products. (10 marks)

2. (a)Explain five clauses that must be specified in the Memorandum of Association of a public limited company. (10 marks)

(b) The following information was extracted from the books of Kisababu Traders on 31 December 2014:

Details	Sh
Sales	84,0000
Purchases	58,000
Opening Stock	15,700

Required:

i. Prepare Kisababu Traders Trading Account for the period ending 31 December 2014. (5 marks)

ii. Work out Kisababu Traders percentage mark up.(2 marks)

iii. Calculate Kisababu Traders Rate of Stock Turnover.(3 marks)

3. (a)Explain five demerits of using carts as a means of transport in towns. (10 marks)

(b) Explain five types of direct taxes that the government may use to collect revenue from individuals and companies. (10 marks)

4. (a)The demand for soft drinks has been on the increase. Explain five factors that may have contributed to this. (10 marks)

(b) Describe five forms of economic integration that countries may join to promote international trade. (10 marks)

5. (a) Explain five differences between an open office and an enclosed office. (10 marks)

(b) The following opening balances were extracted from the books of Mageta Traders on 1 July 2016:

The following transactions took place in the course of the month:

— Paid a creditor Sh4,500 in cash.

— Took Sh3,000 from the bank for family use.

— Bought stock Sh 18,600 on credit.

— Acquired a 10 year bank loan Sh 165,000 which was credited to the business bank account.

— Purchased land worth Sh 82,000 paying by cheque.

Converted a family table worth Sh5,500 to business use.

— Received Sh 7,300 in cash from debtor.

Required: Prepare Mageta Traders Balance Sheet at the end of July 2016 (10 marks)

6. (a) Explain five problems of using national income statistics to compare the living standards of citizens of Kenya and Tanzania. (10 marks)

(b) Use the transactions given below to prepare Jawabu Traders two column cash book for the month of February 2015. (10 marks)

1st Feb.Had Sh 12,500 cash and a bank overdraft of Sh 5,000

2nd Feb.Used cash to pay for water bill Sh 800, electricity Sh 1,100 and wages Sh4,700.

3rd Feb.Received a cheque of Sh 18,900 from a debtor

5th Feb.Sold goods worth Sh 7,150 in cash.

7th Feb.Paid for goods bought for resale worth Sh 6,400 by cheque.

9th Feb.Received a cheque of Sh 13,000 from the co-operative society as earnings from dividends.

10th Feb.Withdrew Sh 2,500 from the bank for family use.

13th Feb.Received Sh 15,900 in cash from a debtor.

15th Feb.Deposited Sh9,500 from the office into the business bank account.

17th Feb. Paid a creditor by cheque Sh4,390.

27th Feb.Used all the money in the bank to purchase furniture leaving only a balance of Sh2,010.

Questions and Answers

2018 Business Studies paper 2

1. (a)Explain five circumstances that may lead to the existence of a business opportunity to be exploited by the entrepreneur. (10 marks)

 

• Lack of some products/services.Custoiners may need some products/services which are not easily found in their area.
• Higher prices of goods/services.Existing market prices may be unnecessarily high hence offering them at relatively lower prices would create an opportunity.
• Excess demand.When the quantities of goods available in the market are not sufficient, an opportunity to supply more exist.
• Low quality products.When customers expect better quality products then, this presente an opportunity to offer them.
• Sub-standard services.An opportunity will exist where better services are offered in the distribution of goods.
• Un-met sociocultural needs/conditions.Goods and ses ices should target the society’s existing attitudes, practices and beliefs which existing products may not be addressing.
• Innovation.Discovery of new technology which may lead to reduced costs of production and general efficiency presents an opportunity.

  (b) Explain five factors that Chuma Steel Manufacturers may consider when choosing a channel for distributing their products. (10 marks)

• The geographical spread of customers.If the customers are spread over a wide area, then a longer channel would be preferable.
• Durability of the steel products.Since steel products are not easily spoilt, long channels can be used ln their distribution.
• Level of competition.Shorter channels should be used if competition is so stiff.
• Resources and size of the firm.If the firm has limited resources and only serves a small market, then a shorter channel is ideal.
• Government policy.Chuma steel manufacturers must adhere to government regulation on the distribution of steel products.
• Marketing risks.Where marketing risks are higher, more middlemen should be involved to spread such risks.
• Availability of intermediaries.Chuma Steel Manufacturers can only use channels where intermediaries are available.
• Pricing of the steel products.Shooter channels will be preferred where the prices are to be kept low by avoiding the intermediaries.

  2. (a)Explain five clauses that must be specified in the Memorandum of Association of a public limited company. (10 marks)

• The Name Clause.This clause states the name of the company and ends with the word “limited”. This name must be unique to the company and not shared with any other.
• The Objects Clause.This clause states the objectives of the company and specifies what the company has powers to do.
• The Situation Clause.This clause states the physical location of the company’s registered office.
• The Liability Clause.This clause states the extent to which members are fiable to the debts of the company.

  Shareholders and members have “limited liability”.

• The Capital Clause.This clause states the amount of capital that the company is authorized to raise, the capital structure, the composition and the values of the shares.
• Association and Subscriptions Clause.This clause contains a declaration by the original members who registered the company about their desîre to form a company, their objectives, the number of shares they will owri and their personal details.

  (b) The following information was extracted from the books of Kisababu Traders on 31 December 2014:

  Details	Sh
  Sales	84,0000
  Purchases	58,000
  Opening Stock	15,700

  Required:

  i. Prepare Kisababu Traders Trading Account for the period ending 31 December 2014. (5 marks)

  

  ii. Work out Kisababu Traders percentage mark up.(2 marks)Mark up = GP/COGS x 100

  15,000/60000 x 100

  60, 000

  = 25%

  iii. Calculate Kisababu Traders Rate of Stock Turnover.(3 marks)

  Rate of Stock Turnover = COGS./Average Stock

  60,000/(O.P. Stock * C.L. Stock)

  60, 000

  15, 700x 3000 2

  60000/14350

  =4 times

  3. (a)Explain five demerits of using carts as a means of transport in towns. (10 marks)

  (i) Carts are prone to delays occasioned by their slow speed.

  (ii) Movement of carts is affected by extreme weather conditions like rainfall.

  (iii) They are unsuitable for transporting goods over long distances as people and animals get tired when pulling them.

  (iv) Carts offer little protection to goods against damage by elements of weather such as rain.

  (v) Goods transported by carts are susceptible to theft making it an unsuitable means of transporting valuable goods.

  (vi) Carts cannot carry very heavy and bulky goods since their carrying capacity is limited.

  (vii) Carts inconvenience motor vehicles and other road users since they are slower.

  (viii) Carts may be a cause of accidents since those pulling them usually disregard traffic rules.

  (b) Explain five types of direct taxes that the government may use to collect revenue from individuals and companies. (10 marks)

• Personal Income Tax (P.A.Y.E.).This is tax charged on an individual’s income which may be from salaries, wages and profits made from businesses. This tax is usually progressive in nature.
• Corporation Tax.This tax is usually charged on the profits made by companies and other incorporated business. It is a fixed percentage of the profits.
• Capital Transfer Taa.This tax is charged when there is change of ownership of capital investment from one person to another.
• Stamp duty.This tax is charged on the transfer of land or securities from one person to another.
• Capital gains tax.This tax is charged when an asset is sold at a price that is higher than its book value.
• Estate (death) duty.This tax is levied when property is transferred to an inheritor/ heir after the death of the original owner.
• Wealth tax.This tax is levied on personal wealth that goes beyond a certain limit. This wealth may include realizableassets like land, houses, accumulated profits and even savings.
• Withholding tax.This tax is levied on savings like pension dividends and any moneys held by individuals.

  4. (a)The demand for soft drinks has been on the increase. Explain five factors that may have contributed to this. (10 marks)

• Favourable pricing.The soft drinks are priced at a value that consumers can easily afford.
• Increasing consurner incomes.People are able to buy more of the products due to increased earnings.
• High prices of substitutes.Most of the products in the market that can serve as substitutes are hîghly priced hence not preferred by buyers.
• Favourable tastes and preferences.More consumers now like soft drinks as compared to other drinks.
• Favourable government policies which keep the prices of soft drinks down/stable hence encouraging their consumption.
• General increase in population.With more people, more of the products are consumed.
• Aggressive marketing/sales promotion.More consumers are attracted to soft drinks due to intense advertising and other promotional strategies.
• Equitable distribuôon of income among consumers.Since many people have access to earning, they are able to buy more of the products.

  (b) Describe five forms of economic integration that countries may join to promote international trade. (10 marks)

• Preferential Trade Area.In this form ofi integration, trade barriers are reduced among the member nations while the barriers are applied at normal rates for trading activities with non-member nations.
• Free trade area.This is economic integration where all trade barriers are removed between the member countries while each country retains its own barriers towards non-members.
• Customs union.In this form of integration, tariffs and other trade barriers are removed between member countries whiletheir trade policies are harmonized with regard to treatment of trade with the rest of the world.
• Common market.This integration goes beyond harmonizing trade policies and removal of trade barriers but also allows for free movement of labour and capital among member nations.
• Economic union.In this form of integration, member countries set up common institutions like central banks, adopt use of common currency (monetary system) and have common public services like railways network.
• Duty-free zones.Member countries allow importation of raw materials without charging duty. Exports from these zones to member countries also attract no excise duty.
• Political union.In this form of integration, several states form a central government through which, share a central bank, the defense and core ministries that run their affairs.

  5. (a) Explain five differences between an open office and an enclosed office. (10 marks)

  Open Office

  (a) All staff work in one large room.

  (b) There is no confidentiality in consultations and discussions.

  (c) Senior staff sit together with the juniors hence no status conferred.

  (d) Office equipment and machines are easily shared and cannot be misused.

  (e) Disruptions and noise from colleagues is high due to overcrowding.

  (f) Has fewer partitions hence cheap to construct.

  (g) It is easy to supervise the staff since they are all in one room

  Enclosed Office

  (a) Each staff is allocated a room from where they work.

  (b) Discussions and consultations are done in confidence.

  (c) Confers status on tap level staff as they are allocated own offices.

  (d) Office equipment and machines like telephones are easily misused since they are located in particular offices.

  (e) Little noise and disruption from colleagues since each staff work from own offices.

  (f) Has more partitions hence costly to construct.

  (g) It is difficult to supervise the staff since they are in different rooms.

  (b) The following opening balances were extracted from the books of Mageta Traders on 1 July 2016:

  The following transactions took place in the course of the month:

  — Paid a creditor Sh4,500 in cash.

  — Took Sh3,000 from the bank for family use.

  — Bought stock Sh 18,600 on credit.

  — Acquired a 10 year bank loan Sh 165,000 which was credited to the business bank account.

  — Purchased land worth Sh 82,000 paying by cheque.

  Converted a family table worth Sh5,500 to business use.

  — Received Sh 7,300 in cash from debtor.

  Required: Prepare Mageta Traders Balance Sheet at the end of July 2016 (10 marks)

  

  6. (a) Explain five problems of using national income statistics to compare the living standards of citizens of Kenya and Tanzania. (10 marks)(i) The two countries may have used different currency values to calculate their national income hence different standards of measure.

  (ii) One country could be having a large subsistence sector whose income may not have been included in the measure of their income.

  (iii) The levels of income distribution in one country may be too skewed compared to the other which may have a fair income distribution.

  The two countries may have different references and economic priorities. The two countries could be differcnt in terms of resource endowment hence different abilities to generate income.

  (vi) The climatic conditions in the two countries may be different leading to difference in demand and production.

  Production activities may affect the health of citizens in the two countries differently. The political realities in the two countries could be different affecting their stability and the security of citizens.

  (ix) The degree of accuracy of the national income statistics .

  (b) Use the transactions given below to prepare Jawabu Traders two column cash book for the month of February 2015. (10 marks)

  1st Feb.Had Sh 12,500 cash and a bank overdraft of Sh 5,000

  2nd Feb.Used cash to pay for water bill Sh 800, electricity Sh 1,100 and wages Sh4,700.

  3rd Feb.Received a cheque of Sh 18,900 from a debtor

  5th Feb.Sold goods worth Sh 7,150 in cash.

  7th Feb.Paid for goods bought for resale worth Sh 6,400 by cheque.

  9th Feb.Received a cheque of Sh 13,000 from the co-operative society as earnings from dividends.

  10th Feb.Withdrew Sh 2,500 from the bank for family use.

  13th Feb.Received Sh 15,900 in cash from a debtor.

  15th Feb.Deposited Sh9,500 from the office into the business bank account.

  17th Feb. Paid a creditor by cheque Sh4,390.

  27th Feb.Used all the money in the bank to purchase furniture leaving only a balance of Sh2,010.

  

kcse exam 2020
kcse 2020 English
kcse 2020 prediction
kcse 2020 mathematics prediction
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FREE KCSE 2017 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2016 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2015 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS)
KCSE 2014 PAST PAPERS (QUESTIONS, MARKING SCHEMES AND REPORTS

 

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

kcse questions and answers 2018

 

2018 Business Studies paper 1

1. Outline four features of labour as a factor of production. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

2. Outline four ways in which peace within a country may encourage entrepreneurial development.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

3. State four duties of the office clerk. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

4. The document shown below is used in home trade.

(a) Identify the document(1 marks)

(b) Outline three circumstances under which the above document may be used. (3 marks)

(i)…………….

(ii)…………….

(iii)…………….

5. State four measures that may be taken by the government to control inflation. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

6. Outline four measures that may be taken by the government to curb unemployment. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

7. Highlight four benefits of national income statistics to the government.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

8. Fill in the spaces in the table below: (4 marks)

9. State four categories in which the various types of business partners may be classified.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

10. Highlight four ways in which the government creates an enabling environment for the conduct of business in the country. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

11. Outline four roles of transport in the facilitation of trade.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

12. State three circumstances under which firms would form a cartel.(3 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

13. Outline four conditions under which a manufacturer would distribute his products through the wholesaler. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

14. State four reasons for maintaining a cash book in a business enterprise. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

15. Apart from the forces of demand and supply, list four other ways in which the price of a product may be set. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

16. Outline four factors that would make two people taking the same type of life assurance policy with the same insurer to pay different amounts of premium. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

17. State the line of communication involved in each of the following: (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

(a) The Manager of ABC Company Ltd talking to the Manager of XYZ Company Ltd.

(b) A secretary asking for time off from her boss.

(c) The Production Manager giving instructions to the Secretary of the Sales Manager.

(d) The Store Keeper giving explanations to the Chief Accountant.

18. List four books of original entry that may be used to record transactions affecting stock.(4 marks)(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

19. Highlight four external economies of scale that a firm may get when operating on a large scale.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

20. The following information was extracted from the books of Leila Traders on 31st July 2016:

Details Sh

Capital 90,000

FixedAssets 80,000

Cash in hand 20,000

Current liabilities 20,000

Stock 20,000

Net profit 15,000

Drawings 5,000

Calculate:

(a) Capital owned

(b) Acid test ratio

21. Watamu Enterprises had the following assets and liabilities on 1st May 2014:

Particulars Sh

Equipment 800,000

Capital 1,200,000

Creditors 100,000

Debtors 200,000

Stock 250,000

Cash at bank 50,000

The following transactions took place on 2nd May 2014:

(i) Bought goods for re-sale Sh 150,000 on credit

(ii) A debtor paid Sh 100,000 by cheque

(iii) Sold the equipment for Sh900,000 cash

Required: Prepare Watamu Enterprises balance sheet after the above transactions. (5 marks)

22. Outline four merits of indirect taxes.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

23. Highlight four ways in which the technological environment may improve business performance.(4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

24. Identify the types of ledger in which each of the following accounts would be found: (4 marks)

Account Type of ledger

a Otieno (buyer)

b Carriage outwards

Mueni (supplier)

d Cash at bank

25. Highlight four ways in which the introduction of money helped eliminate problems faced in barter trade. (4 marks)

(a)…………….

(b)…………….

(c)…………….

(d)…………….

Questions and Answers

2018 Business Studies paper 1

1. Outline four features of labour as a factor of production. (4 marks)

(a) Labour is perishable/cannot be stored.

(b) It is not separable from the labourer.

(c) The quality of labour is variable.

(d) It is mobile/can move from one place to another.

(e) It earns salary/wages.

(f) It is a basic factor of production.

2. Outline four ways in which peace within a country may encourage entrepreneurial development.(4 marks)

(a) Entrepreneurs are assured of the safety of their investment hence encouraged to invest.

(b) Funds are availed for investment instead of being spent on provision of security.

(c) There is free movement of factors of production which motivates trade.

(d) There is free interaction between people which encourage sharing of business ideas.

(e) Reduced cost of insurance due to lower risks.

(f) Increased markets since even foreigners feel free to trade with the locals.

(g) Stable complementary institutions like banks and warehouses which encourage business.

3. State four duties of the office clerk. (4 marks)

(a) handling mails.

(b) Duplicating and operating various office machines.

(c) Filing and indexing.

(d) Record keeping and simple book keeping.

(e) Helps in store-keeping.

(D) Ordering, receiving, storing and issuing of stationery.

4. The document shown below is used in home trade.

(a) Identify the document(1 marks)

Credit note

(b) Outline three circumstances under which the above document may be used. (3 marks)

(b) Circumstances under which the document is used include:

(i) When correcting arithmetic error resulting into overcharge.

(ii) Where the buyer has been charged higher prices than the recommended price.

(iii) When items included in the invoice were not delivered.

(iv) When a deserved discount is not given.

(v) When the buyer has returned some goods.

(vi) When empty crates /packaging for which a deposit had been paid are returned.

5. State four measures that may be taken by the government to control inflation. (4 marks)

(a) Setting minimum and maximum wage limits to control salaries

(b) Restricting imports.

(c) Controlling of exports.

(d) Restricting terms of hire purchase and credit terms of sale.

(e) Price control.

(f) Offer of subsidies and other incentives to local producers.

(g) Controlling the supply and circulation of money in the economy.

6. Outline four measures that may be taken by the government to curb unemployment. (4 marks)

(a) Diversification of economic activities.

(b) Control of population growth.

(c) Adoption of policies that encourage labour intensive methods of production.

(d) Partner with the private sector to create employment.

(e) Adopting relevant education system.

(f) Encouraging direct foreign investment.

(g) Encouraging efficient exploitation and use of locally available resources.

(h) Availing investment funds through favourable credit like the Youth Fund and Uwezo Fund.

7. Highlight four benefits of national income statistics to the government.(4 marks)

(a) Provides information on the country’s economic performance over a period of time.

(b) Provides information to be used for making economic policies/budgeting/planning.

(c) Provides information on the contribution of each sector of the economy to the national income.

(d) Provides a breakdown on consumer expenditure and government expenditure.

(e) Provides information on the distribution of income.

( Provide information on the types of factor incomes in the economy.

(g) Provide statistics for measuring the economic growth of the country.

(h) Provides information that is used to measure the standard of living in the country.

(i) Provide information used for comparing economic performance of the country across two or more years.

8. Fill in the spaces in the table below: (4 marks)

A.24,266

B.219,800

C.11,990

D.42,295

9. State four categories in which the various types of business partners may be classified.(4 marks)

(a) By capital contribution.

(b) By extent of liability to be borne.

(c) By activity (part played in the day-to-day running of the business).

(d) By age.

10. Highlight four ways in which the government creates an enabling environment for the conduct of business in the country. (4 marks)

(a) Provision of credit facilities at favourable rates.

(b) Ensuring political stability and good will.

(c) Training and educating the population to create a pool of skilled manpower.

(d) Marketing of final products for producers.

(e) Provision of essential social amenities like water and sewerage, health and education.

(f) Favourable policies andeasy procedures like licensing, subsidies and favourable taxation.

(g) Provision of infrastructure.

11. Outline four roles of transport in the facilitation of trade.(4 marks)

(a) Facilitates the movement of factors of production and other inputs like raw materials.

(b) Enables goods to be moved to the market from their point of production.

(c) Adds value to goods and services by moving them to the point of consumption.

(d) Opens up new markets.

(e) Makes it possible for the exploitation of natural resources.

(f) Allows for specialization since it allows people to access goods produced elsewhere.

(g) Promotes mass production since goods can be moved to be stored and sold elsewhere.

12. State three circumstances under which firms would form a cartel.(3 marks)

(a) When there is need to control output by each firm.

(b) When there is need to be in control of market prices.

(c) When there is need to eliminate stiff competition among the firms.

(d) When there is need to restrict entry of new firms into the market.

(e) When there is need to increase the firms’ bargaining power.

() When there is need to guarantee the income and financial strength of the firms.

13. Outline four conditions under which a manufacturer would distribute his products through the wholesaler. (4 marks)

(a) When it is the dictate of government policy.

(b) When the manufacturer needs time to concentrate on production.

(c) When he wants to avoid the high costs of distribution.

(d) Where it is too expensive to distribute using the manufacture’s ohm outlet.

(e) Where wholesalers prefer to market the product under their own brand names.

(f) Where the manufacturer wants to avoid marketing risks like drop in prices.

(g) When the wholesaler provides ready cash while purchasing in bulk.

(h) Where the manufacturer needs to free storage space.

14. State four reasons for maintaining a cash book in a business enterprise. (4 marks)

(a) To reduce the number of entries made into the general ledger.

(b) To easily avail cash balances/show cash balances at a glance.

(c) To enhance specialization in book keeping by allocating different ledgers to different workers.

(d) To easily monitor the cash inflow and outflow.

(e) To show the sources of funds into the business.

(f) To show the expenditure in the business.

15. Apart from the forces of demand and supply, list four other ways in which the price of a product may be set. (4 marks)

(a) Auction

(b) Haggling (Bargaining)

(c) Price legislation/price control

(d) Price discrimination

(e) Tendering

(f) Retain price maintenance

16. Outline four factors that would make two people taking the same type of life assurance policy with the same insurer to pay different amounts of premium. (4 marks)

(a) Differences in their ages.

(b) Difference in their occupations and the risks they are exposed to.

(c) Difference in their sum assured.

(d) Difference in their places of residence.

(e) Difference in their health status.

(f) Deferring maturity period of their policies

17. State the line of communication involved in each of the following: (4 marks)

(a) The Manager of ABC Company Ltd talking to the Manager of XYZ Company Ltd.

 

• Horizontal communication(b) A secretary asking for time off from her boss.
• Upward vertical communication(c) The Production Manager giving instructions to the Secretary of the Sales Manager.
• Downward diagonal communication(d) The Store Keeper giving explanations to the Chief Accountant.
• Upward diagonal communication18. List four books of original entry that may be used to record transactions affecting stock.(4 marks)(a) Purchases journal.

  (b) Sales journal.

  (c) Sales returns journal/Returns inwards journal.

  (d) Purchases returns/Returns outwards journal.

  19. Highlight four external economies of scale that a firm may get when operating on a large scale.(4 marks)

  (a) Ready market from the surrounding industries.

  (b) Access to skilled labour force.

  (c) Enjoy improved infrastructure.

  (d) Easy disposal of wastes.

  (e) Readily available complementary services like banking, insurance and warehousing.

  (II Improved security.

  (g) Government support/favourable policies.

  20. The following information was extracted from the books of Leila Traders on 31st July 2016:

  Details Sh

  Capital 90,000

  FixedAssets 80,000

  Cash in hand 20,000

  Current liabilities 20,000

  Stock 20,000

  Net profit 15,000

  Drawings 5,000

  Calculate:

  (a) Capital owned

  IC + NP — D

  = 90,000 + 15,000 — 5,000

  = 100.000

  (b) Acid test ratio

  CA-Stock /CL

  20, 000/20, 000

  =1:1

  21. Watamu Enterprises had the following assets and liabilities on 1st May 2014:

  Particulars Sh

  Equipment 800,000

  Capital 1,200,000

  Creditors 100,000

  Debtors 200,000

  Stock 250,000

  Cash at bank 50,000

  The following transactions took place on 2nd May 2014:

  (i) Bought goods for re-sale Sh 150,000 on credit

  (ii) A debtor paid Sh 100,000 by cheque

  (iii) Sold the equipment for Sh900,000 cash

  Required: Prepare Watamu Enterprises balance sheet after the above transactions. (5 marks)

  

  22. Outline four merits of indirect taxes.(4 marks)(a) Tax payment is voluntary.

  (b) It’s not easily evaded.

  (c) More revenue can be raised/covers a wide range of items.

  (d) It is convenient/paid in bits.

  (e) It’s easy to collect at the selling point.

  (f) It promotes equality/paid by everyone who purchases the goods.

  (g) It’s flexible.

  (h) Can be used selectively.

  23. Highlight four ways in which the technological environment may improve business performance.(4 marks)

  (a) Increased output/mass production.

  (b) Lower cost per unit of production.

  (c) Minimal incidences of fraud.

  (d) High quality products.

  (e) Improved business image/reputation.

  (I) Increased sales.

  (g) Better communication.

  (h) Wider market/globalization.

  (i) Faster conduct of business transactions.

  24. Identify the types of ledger in which each of the following accounts would be found: (4 marks)

  Account Type of ledger

  a Otieno (buyer)

• (a) Debtors ledger/sales ledgerb Carriage outwards
• Nominal ledger/General ledgerc Mueni (supplier)
• Creditors ledger/Purchases ledgerd Cash at bank
• Cash book25. Highlight four ways in which the introduction of money helped eliminate problems faced in barter trade. (4 marks)(a) Money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants since it is a medium of exchange.

  (b) Stores the value of perishable goods by selling them and keeping the money for future use.

  (c) Ensures thatcommodities exchanged are of comparable value, by offering a standard measure of value.

  (d) Help in the exchange of indivisible commodities since it can be divided into smaller denominations wlthout losing value.

  (e) Money provides a unit of account by which goods and services are valued unlike in barter trade.

  (f) Money is a standard for deferred payment whereas it was not possible to make payments in the future under the barter system.

  (g) Money enables the exchange of fixed property like land.

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Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2018 Biology Paper 3

Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

1. The photographs below represent three mammalian bones, labelled E, F and G.

E F G

(a) With reasons, identify the bones.

Identity

Bone E……….

Identity

Bone F……….

Identity

Bone G……….

(b) Name the joints formed at the anterior and posterior ends of F. Anterior end (1 mark)

Posterior end …………………..,. (1 mark)

(c) State the types of movement facilitated by the joint at the anterior end of specimen labelled F. (1 mark)

(d) (i) Name the substance found inside the living tissue of the specimen represented in photograph F. (1 mark)

(ii) State the fiinction of the substance named in (d) (i) above.

(e) (i) Name the muscle bundle usually attached onto the front of the specimen represented in photograph F.

(ii) State the function of the muscle bundle named in (e) (i) above.

2. Below is a photograph of a blood smear from a normal individual. The arrangement is arbitrary and the number of blood elements is greater than what would normally occur in an actual microscopic field.

(a) (i) Name the blood elements labelled J, K and L. (3 marks)

J………

K……….

L……….

(ii) State one function of each of the elements named in (a) (i) above. (3 marks)

K ………………

L ……………….

5 (b) The photograph below is of a section of the human intestines of a patient suffering from a common parasitic disease.

(i) Name the disease.(1 mark)

(ii) Name the parasite that causes the disease in (b) (i) above.(1 mark)

(iii) State Evo control measures for the disease.(2 mark)

(iv) State the effects of having the parts labelled G in the patient’s intestines.

3. You are provided with a specimen labelled H. With the aid of a hand lens, examine the external features of the specimen.

(a) (i) What part of a plant is specimen H?

(ii) Give two reasons for your answer in (a) (i) above.

(b) Open up specimen H longitudinally.

Use a hand lens to observe the internal structures of specimen H. (1 mark)

(i) Draw and label the internal cut surface and associated structures of specimen H. (5 marks)

(ii) Explain how you would determine the magnification of the drawing made in (b) (i) above. (2 marks)

(iii) State the mode of dispersal for seeds of specimen H.(I mark)

(iv) Explain how seeds of specimen H are dispersed through the mode stated in (b) (iii) above. (3 marks)

BIOLOGY Questions and answers

Biology Paper 3 (231/3)

Kenya Certificate of Secondary Education

2018 Biology Paper 3

Answer all the questions in the spaces provided.

1. The photographs below represent three mammalian bones, labelled E, F and G.

E F G

(a) With reasons, identify the bones.

Identity

Bone E……….

scapula/shoulder blade;

 

• Has a socket/glenoid cavity/depression to articulate with the ball/head of the humerus;
• Flat/triangular-shaped flat blade/triangular shaped/flat blade/flattened;;
• Has a spine/ridge/coracoids process/acromion for attachment of musclesIdentity

  Bone F……….

  Humerus;

• Has a ball/head/rounded head that articulates with the glenoid cavity/ socket on the scapula;
• Has condyles that articulate with radius and ulna;Identity

  Bone G……….

  G — Radius attached to ulna;

• Ulna has a sigmoid notch for articulation with the shoulder joint/ lower end of the humerus;
• Has trochlea/olecranon fossa;
• Has greater/larger tuberosity Has biciptal groove;(b) Name the joints formed at the anterior and posterior ends of F. Anterior end (1 mark)

  • Ball and socket (joint);

  Posterior end ……….(1 mark)

  • Hinge joint

  (c) State the types of movement facilitated by the joint at the anterior end of specimen labelled F. (1 mark)

  Rotation/up and down/side-ways (of the arm);

  (d) (i) Name the substance found inside the living tissue of the specimen represented in photograph F. (1 mark)

• Bone marrow;(ii) State the fiinction of the substance named in (d) (i) above.
• Manufacture of(red) blood cells(e) (i) Name the muscle bundle usually attached onto the front of the specimen represented in photograph F.

  Biceps;

  (ii) State the function of the muscle bundle named in (e) (i) above.

  Contract/relax to move the lower arm (upwards);

  2. Below is a photograph of a blood smear from a normal individual. The arrangement is arbitrary and the number of blood elements is greater than what would normally occur in an actual microscopic field.

  

  (a) (i) Name the blood elements labelled J, K and L. (3 marks)J — Erythrocyte(s)/red blood cell;

  K — Leucocyte/white blood cell;

  L — Thrombocytes/Platelets

  (ii) State one function of each of the elements named in (a) (i) above. (3 marks)

  I — Transportation of oxygen/carbon (IV) oxide;

  K — Engulf/attack pathogens/ foreign materials in the blood;

  L — Blood clotting;

  5 (b) The photograph below is of a section of the human intestines of a patient suffering from a common parasitic disease.

  

  (i) Name the disease.(1 mark)Amoebic dysentery;

  (ii) Name the parasite that causes the disease in (b) (i) above.(1 mark)

  Entamoeba hystolytica

  (iii) State two control measures for the disease.(2 mark)

• Boiling drinking water (before drinking);/
• Chlorinating/treating drinking water;
• Keeping the food covered (to keep away flies/prevent contamination/proper storage of food;
• Proper faecal disposal in pit latrines/toilets/keeping the same clean/not to dispose faecal materials in the open/washing hands before handling food/ washing fruits/food before eating/after visiting toilet/latrine;
• Proper cooking of food;
• Washing hands before handling of food/washing fruits before eating(iv) State the effects of having the parts labelled G in the patient’s intestines.

  Fruit(s);

• Has two scars; point of attachment to remains of style; and point of attachment to the receptacle/fruit stalk
• Presence of seeds;
• Presence of pericarp/fruit wall
• Has epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp fused3. You are provided with a specimen labelled H. With the aid of a hand lens, examine the external features of the specimen.

  (a) (i) What part of a plant is specimen H?

  Fruit(s);

  (ii) Give two reasons for your answer in (a) (i) above.

• Has two scars; point of attachment to remains of style; and point of attachment to the receptacle/fruit stalk
• Presence of seeds;
• Presence of pericarp/fruit wall
• Has epicarp, mesocarp and endocarp fused(b) Open up specimen H longitudinally.

  Use a hand lens to observe the internal structures of specimen H. (1 mark)

  (i) Draw and label the internal cut surface and associated structures of specimen H. (5 marks)

  

  (ii) Explain how you would determine the magnification of the drawing made in (b) (i) above. (2 marks)Linear magnification — Length of drawing;

  Actual length of object (specimen); OWTTE

  (iii) State the mode of dispersal for seeds of specimen H.(I mark)

  Explosive mechanism/self-dispersal mechanism/self explossive

  (iv) Explain how seeds of specimen H are dispersed through the mode stated in (b) (iii) above. (3 marks)

  Dry pods; due to loss of water from the pod and pressure from within the pod; the pod opens (violently) along the sutures /1ines of weakness; seeds are thrown away from the parent plant/dispersed;

 

Questions and Answers

2018 Agriculture Paper 2

SECTION A (30 marks)

1. State six characteristics of a good breeding stock.(3 marks)

 

• Young;
• Healthy;
• Prolific;
• High performer/yielder;
• Free from physical deformities;
• Fertile;
• Proper body conformation;
• Adapted to local conditions;
• Good mothering ability;2. State four reasons for maintaining farm tools and equipment.(2 marks)
• Ensure efficiency;
• Make them durable;
• Reduce replacement costs;
• Avoid injury to the user;3. State four reasons why a calf should be fed on colostrum.(2 marks)
• Highly digestible;
• Highly nutritious;
• Contains antibodies which boost immunity; Has laxative effect;
• Highly palatable;4. Give two reasons for growing grass around a fish pond.(1 marks)
• Stabilize the banks;
• Attract insects which lay eggs that hatch into larvae for fish food;5. Name four systems of poultry rearing. (2 marks)
• Free range;
• Deep litter;
• Fold;
• Battery cage;6. State three advantages of conterriporary comparison method of selecting breeding stock.(1½ marks)
• It is possible to compare animals of different age groups;
• Eliminates differences due to environmental factors;
• It is possible to compare bulls of different artificial insemination centres; It is accurate;7. Give the meaning of the following terms as used in livestock breeding:(a) close breeding (½ mark)
• Close breeding:- Breeding of closely related animals;(b) line breeding (½ mark)
• Line breeding:- Mating of distantly related animals that share a common ancestry;(c) out crossing (½ mark)
• (c) Out crossing:- Mating of unrelated animals within the same breed;(d) cross breeding (½ mark)
• Cross breeding:- Mating of two animals of different breeds;8. State four livestock rearing practices undertaken in a crush to control parasites and diseases.(2 marks)
• Vaccination;
• Deworming;
• Hoof trimming;
• Spraying;
• Dehorning;
• Treatment/injection;9. Name the dairy cattle breed that(a) produces the highest milk yield in kilograms (½ mark)

  (a) – Friesian;

  (b) is fawn/brown coloured with white colour on the face, legs below knees and hocks, tail switch and flanks (½ mark)

• – Guernsey;(c) is most suitable for marginal areas with poor pastures. (½ mark)
• Jersey;10. Distinguish between each of the following breeding practices:(a) clutching and ringing (1 mark)

  (a) Crutching:- Cutting of wool around the external reproductive organ of a female sheep to facilitate mating while

  Ringing:- Trimming of wool around the sheath of the penis in rams to facilitate mating;

  (b) tupping and serving (1 mark)

  (b) Tapping:- Act of mating in goats and sheep;

  Serving:- Act of mating in cattle and pigs;

  11. What is a predisposing factor of a disease?(1 mark)

  Conditions which lead to the animal contracting a disease

  12. State four candling qualities of good eggs for incubation. (2 marks)

• Fertile (has germinal disk; black spot);
• Free from blood spots; Large air space;
• Free of hair cracks;
• Free of excessively porous shell; Free of broken shells;13. Apart from the roof, name four other parts of a building that can be constructed using wood. (2 marks)
• Floor;
• Ceiling;
• Door;
• Windows14. State four symptoms of internal parasite infestation in livestock. (2 mark)
• Starring coat;
• Eggs and parasites seen in faeces;
• General emaciation; Diarrhoea;
• Pot-bellies; Anaemia; Anorexia;
• Dehydration/pale mucosa15. State the functional difference between the following:(a) cross-cut saw and rip saw (1 mark)
• Rip saw: – cuts along the grain of wood.
• Cross-cut saw — cuts across the grain of wood;(b) wood chisel and cold chisel (1 marks)
• Wood chisel — cutting grooves/chopping rough wood surface;
• Cold chisel — cutting thick sheets of metal.16. Give the meaning of the following terms as used in livestock health:(a) predisposing factor (1 mark)
• Conditions inside or outside the animal body which make it to contract a disease;(b) incubation period (1 mark)
• Is the duration between the time of infection and the time the first symptoms show up;SECTION B (20 marks)Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

  17. The diagram below shows a livestock parasite.

  

  (a) Identify the parasite.(1 mark)

• Tapeworm(b) Explain how the parasite is passed from(i) livestock to human beings(1 mark)
• Ingestion of bladder worm;(ii) human beings to livestock(1 mark)
• Ingestion of eggs (proglottids) passed in human faeces during grazing/feeding;(c) Explain two control measures for the parasite in a zero grazing unit.(2 mark)
• Use of antihelmintics/deworming to kill endo-parasites;
• Proper hygiene in the unit;
• Proper use of latrines to prevent contamination by infected faeces;
• Proper cooking of meat to destroy bladder worms;
• Use of clean feed, feeders, water and watchers to prevent contamination;18. The diagram below illustrates a tractor drawn implement.
  

  (a) Identify the implement (1 mark)

• Disc plough(b) Name the part labelled H and I(1 mark)H – Beam;

  I – Lower link attachment point;

  (c) State one function of the part labelled K(1 mark)

  Counteracts the thrust by the discs to balance the plough;/helps to adjust the depth of ploughing;

  (d) Explain why the implement is suitable for ploughing areas with hidden stones. (1 mark)

  The discs are able to roll over obstacles;

  19. A farmer is required to prepare 200 kg of dairy meal containing 18% digestible crude protein (DCP).

  Using the Pearson’s Square Method, calculate the quantity of sunflower seed cake (34% DCP) and maize germ (7% DCP) the farmer requires for the dairy meal. (5 marks)

  

  20. The diagram below represents a practice of identifying livestock on a farm.

  

  (a) ldentify the practice(1 mark)Ear notching;

  (b) Determine the number that identifies the animal represented by the illustration (1 mark)

  155

  (c) Draw a diagram of the animal identified by the number 148 on the farm. (1 mark)

  

  (d) Give two reasons why this method of identification is discouraged in livestock rearing. (2 marks)

• The notching is painful to the animal;
• Notched wounds cause secondary infections;SECTION C (40 marks)Answer any two questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 23.

  21. (a) Describe how natural incubation is set up and managed.(8 mark)

• Provide the broody hen with a nesting box which should be spacious to allow movement of the hen;
• Provide nesting material in the nesting box to maintain warmth;
• Provide the broody hen with 10 — 15 eggs; Keep the nest in a dry; and well-ventilated area;
• Provide the hen with balanced feed and water;
• Dust the hen with appropriate insecticides to control external parasites;
• Allow the hen to go out at least once to exercise and feed;
• Do not disturb the hen when the eggs start hatching;(b) Describe the management of growers in poultry rearing.(5 mark)
• Provide adequate floor space, feeders, and waterers;
• Provide litter on the floor up to 15cm deep; Provide growers mash adlib;
• Provide plenty fresh water;
• Dust the birds with appropriate insecticides to control external parasites; Keep the litter dry to avoid dampness;
• Provide grit or oyster shells towards the end of growers stage/at 12 weeks;
• Gradually introduce layers’ mash from the 16th week until it completely replaces growers’ mash at 18th — 19th week.(c) Describe seven possible sources of power on a farm.(7 mark)
• Human power:- Working directly or utilizing their capacity of organization;
• Animal power e.g. donkeys, oxen camels for cultivation and transportation;
• Wind power e.g. for winnowing, pumping water and turning turbines; Water power e.g. driving turbines to produce HEP driving maize grinding mills and pumping water; Biomass e.g. Biogas, wood or charcoal;
• Solar radiation in photosynthesis, drying crops, generate electricity, etc; Electric power from geothermal, hydropower and nuclear stations, battery;
• Fossil fuel:- petroleum, coal, natural gas, etc;
• Tractor:- Bums petrol or diesel to produce power which is transmitted and used in different ways;22. (a) Describe pneumonia disease under the following sub-headings:(i) causal organism(1 mark)

  Bacteria/virus/HycopIasma mycoides,

  Dust and worms in the lungs;

  (ii) animals affected(2 mark)

• Calves;
• kids;
• lambs;
• piglets;
• poultry;(iii) predisposing factors(2 mark)
• Poor ventilation;
• Overcrowding;
• Age
• young animals;
• Diarrhoea and other illnesses;(iv) symptoms(5 mark)Dullness;
• Loss of appetite;
• Starring coat;
• Emaciation;
• Rapid breathing;
• Fluctuating body temperature; Nasal mucous discharge;
• If chest is pressed, animal starts coughing(v) control measures.(3 mark)
• Keep young animals in warm houses;
• Proper sanitation;
• Isolation;
• Treatment using antibiotics;(b) Explain seven housing requirements for a calf.(7 mark)
• Concrete/slatted floor to facilitate cleaning;
• Spacious to allow exercise, feeding and watering;
• Single housing to prevent licking of one another/ skin infections and spread of worms;
• Well lit to facilitate synthesis of vitamin D;
• Well drained to prevent dampness which predisposes the calf to infections;
• Free from draughts: Solid on the wind ward side to prevent entry of cold winds;
• Leak proof to avoid dampness/wetness which encourages infections;23. (a) State five signs of heat in cattle.(5 mark)
• Restlessness;
• Mounting others and stands still when mounted;
• Slight rise in temperature; Slight drop in milk yield;
• Vulva swells and becomes reddish;
• Clear or slimy mucus discharge from vagina; Frequent mowing;(b) State five advantages a spray race has over a plunge dip.(5 mark)
• Suitable for pregnant and sick animals;
• Animals do not swallow the acaricide wash; Spraying is faster;
• It is less laborious;
• Acaricide wash is not wasted as it is recycled(c) Give five reasons for maintaining livestock healthy.(5 mark)
• Healthy animals grow fast and mature early;
• Animals give a longer productive life;
• Produce good quality products;
• Give maximum production/performance; Prevent spread of diseases;
• Healthy animals are economical to keep; (d) Explain five factors that determine the amount of food eaten by a livestock animal. (5 marks)
• Body size or weight of the animal; large animals eat more food;
• Environmental conditions where the animals is; animals in cold areas require more food;
• Physiological condition of the animal; lactating animals require more food;
• Level of production:- High producers also require more food;
• Purpose for which the animal is kept; animal kept as a pet requires less food than the one kept for production or performance;

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Kenya certificate of primary Education

2018 Agriculture Paper 1

SECTION A (30 marks)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

1.Name four categories of livestock farming.(2 marks)

2.State four farming practices that ensure minimum tillage.(2 marks)

3.State four factors that determine the choice of water pipes used on the farm.(2 marks)

4.Name two sources of underground water.(1 marks)

5.Give four reasons why green manure is not commonly used in farming.(2 marks)

6.(a) Name two types of inventory records kept on the farm.(1 mark)

(b) State two uses of inventory records on a farm. (1 mark)

7.(a) Name three vegetative planting materials used for propagating pineapples. (1½ marks)

(b) State three qualities of certified seeds. (1½ marks)

8. State four advantages of using polythene sleeves to propagate stem cuttings.(2 mark)

9. State four disadvantages of concession land tenure system.(2 mark)

10. Name four insect pests of beans in the field.(2 marks)

11. (a) Name three legume pastures grown in high altitude areas. (l½ marks)

(b) State four management practices undertaken to improve natural pastures. (2 marks)

12. (a) Name two subsidiary books of the journal.(1 mark)

(b) State four item details contained in a sales receipt.(2 mark)

13. State four roles of Young Farmers Clubs in Kenya.(2 mark)

14. (a) What is meant by the term agroforestry? (½ mark)

(b) Name two agroforestry practices.(2 mark)

SECTION B (20 marks)

Answer all the questions in this section in the spaces provided.

15. The diagram below shows a section of a plant from which the planting material illustrated was obtained.

(a) Identify the planting material illustrated. (1 mark)

(b) Give two reasons why only the middle part of the plant was used to prepare the planting material. (2 marks)

(c) Apart from using the middle part of the plant, explain two precautions that should be observed when preparing the illustrated planting material. (2 marks)

16. An experiment was carried out to investigate soil constituents as described below:

Step I — An empty evaporating dish was weighed and its mass was 10 gms.

Step II — Fresh garden soil was put on the evaporating dish and weighed. The mass was 40 gms.

Step III — The evaporating dish containing fresh soil was put in an oven and heated at a temperature of 105 °C for 30 minutes, cooled and then weighed.

The mass was 35 gms.

Step IV — The dish containing soil was then strongly heated on a Bunsen burner for two hours while stirring. It was then cooled and weighed. The new mass was 32 gms.

(a) Give a reason why the soil was heated

(i) at 105 °C

(ii) strongly for two hours

(b) Calculate the percentage content of the soil constituents investigated in the experiment. (3 marks)

17. The diagram below illustrates a nursery practice.

(a) Name the practice

(b) Give a reason why the tool labelled E is important in the practice illustrated. (1 mark)

(c) What is the appropriate stage of growth for carrying out the illustrated practice in agroforestry? (1 mark)

(d) Explain two activities that ensure that the illustrated practice is carried out successfully.(2 marks)

18. In a maize production enterprise carried out over a period of eight years, a farmer used one hectare of land each time and applied different quantities of DAP fertiliser.

DAP fertiliser costs KSh 2 500 per 50kg bag and the harvested maize is sold at KSh 3 000 per 90kg bag. The quantities of DAP fertiliser applied and maize harvested are as shown in this table below.

(a) Complete the table by determining the values of total revenue, total cost, marginal revenue and marginal cost. (2 marks)

(b) From the information in your table, how can the farmer determine the level of production at which profit is maximum? (1 mark)

(c) At the production level that yielded maximum profit, what was the value of each of the following?

(i) DAP fertiliser input(1 marks)

(ii) Marginal revenue(1 marks)

SECTION C (40 marks)

Answer any tiro questions from this section in the spaces provided after question 21.

19. (a) Explain six farming practices that destroy soil structure. (6 marks)

(b) (i) State four functions of calcium in plant growth. (4 marks)

(ii) State four disadvantages of using inorganic fertilisers in crop production. (4 marks)

(c) Describe six categories of pesticides based on mode of action.(6 marks)

20. (a) Explain six cultural methods of soil and water conservation.(6 marks)

(b) Explain four environmental factors that influence effectiveness of herbicides.(8 marks)

(c) Describe six post-harvest practices for dry beans.(6 marks)

21. (a) (i) Describe the harvesting and marketing of bulb onions.(6 marks)

(ii) State the precautions that should be observed when harvesting cotton.(4 marks)

(b) Explain five problems associated with agricultural credit.(5 marks)

(c) Explain five principles that govern the formation and functioning of farmer’s co-operatives.(5 marks)

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 KCSE Past Papers 2019 Physics paper 3 (232/3)

Physics – Paper 3 – November 2019 – 2.30 Hours

Practical

2019 Physics paper 3

Question 1

You are provided with the following:

 

• A stirrer
• A stond, a boss rind a clump
• A themionieter
• An aninieter
• A voltmeter
• A beaker
• A source of boiling water
• Two dry cells in a cell holder
• A switch
• Seven connecting wires
• A component labelled XProceed as follows:

  (a) Set up the circuit as shown in figure 1.

  

  Close the switch, read and record the current I through component X and the potential difference V across it. (l mark)I =……………………..

  V =……………………….

  Open the switch.

  Determine the resistance R of component X given that: R = V/I

  (b) Pour hot water into the beaker and set up the apparatus as in figure 2, so that component X afid the llieriiioirieter bulb are fully immersed.

  

  (c) Stir the water from time to time, when the temperature falls to 80°, switch on the circuit, read and record the current I and the potential difference V in table 1. Then open the switch.(d) Repeat (c) as the temperature falls to the oÎher values shown in table 1. Complete the table. Table 1 (8 marks)

  

  (e) ( i) On the axis provided, plot a graph of Log R against log T. (4 marks)

  

  (ii) Determine the slope S of the graph. (3 marks)(ii) Given that R and T are related by the equation Log R = Log K + n Log T (4 marks)

  (i) n…………………………..(1 marks)

  (ii) k…………………………..(2 marks)

  Question 2

  You are provided with the following:

• A metre rule
• A stand, boss and clamp A piece of string
• A 20 g mass
• A 50 g mass
• A measuring cylinder containing water
• A concave mirror
• A screen
• A candle
• Pieces of sewing threads
• A mirror holder (Lens holder)Proceed as follows:

  PART A

  (a) Using a string, suspend the metre rule on the stand so that it balances horizontally at its center of gravity.

  Record the centimetre mark at which the metre rule balances.

  Centimetre mark =………………….cm (1 mark)

  (b) With the metre rule balanced at its centre of gravity, suspend a 20 g mass at a distance of 30 cm from the centre of gravity.

  Suspend the 50 g mass on the other side of the centre of gravity and adjust its position until the rule is balanced. See figure 3.

  

  Record the distance d of the 50 g ninss from the centre of gravity.d = ……………………….

  d = ……………………… (1 mark)

  Record the volume of the water in the measuring cylinder provided.

  V=……………………………….(1 mark)

  (ii) Immerse the 20 g mass fully into the water and adjust the position of the 50 g mass so that the rule balances horizontally.

  Record the volume V₁ of the water plus 20 g mass and the distance d₁ of the 50 g mass from the centre of gravity.

  (iii) (I) Determine the volume of the water displaced (1 mark)

  (II) Determine the weight of the water displaced. (density of water — I gcm(^-3) (3 marks)

  (d) (i) Use the principle of moments to determine the apparent weight of the 20 g mass when fully immersed in water. g — 10 Nkg^-1 (2 marks)

  (ii) Calculate the weight of the 20 g mass in air (g = 10 Nkg^-1)

  (iii) Determine the apparent loss in weight of the 20 g mass. (l mark)

  PART B

  (e) Light the candle and place it at distance u = 20 cm in front of the concave mirror. Adjust the position of the screen until a sharp image of the candle flame is obtained. See figure 4.

  

  (i) Read and record the distance v between the screen and the mirror.v=………………………………(1 mark)

  (ii) Determine:

  I. The magnification m of the mirror given that: m = v/u (1 mark)

  II. the value f₁ given that: f₁ = mu/m+1

  (f) Repeat part (e) for distance u₁ = 18 cm.

  (i) Read and record the distance v₁ between the screen and the mirror. (ii) Determine the magnification m₁ of the mirror. (1 mark )

  (iii) Hence determine f₂.

  (g) Determine the average value of f. ₁